Did cavemen have a right to health care?
Having wrestled with the concept of how health care could be a fundamental right, I was intrigued to see this passage by Theodore Dalrymple, errr Anthony Daniels, in the WSJ:
Where does the right to health care come from? Did it exist in, say, 250 B.C., or in A.D. 1750? If it did, how was it that our ancestors, who were no less intelligent than we, failed completely to notice it?
If, on the other hand, the right to health care did not exist in those benighted days, how did it come into existence, and how did we come to recognize it once it did?
The truth, of course, is that the notion of "positive rights" is completely inconsistent with the philosophical development of the rights of man because it is a "right" that would necessarily infringe upon the rights of others.
This does not even get into the many technical problems belying the current proposals for health care "reform" that would render the system even worse than it is now.
